DNA Replication & Gene Expression
Download PDFHow to Use This Guide
- DNA Structure — A2.1 nucleotide components, double helix, base pairing, antiparallel strands
- DNA Replication — A2.2 semi-conservative replication, enzymes, leading and lagging strand synthesis
- Transcription & Translation — A2.3 gene expression from DNA to protein, codon table, ribosome function
- Gene Expression & Epigenetics — A2.4 regulation of gene expression, lac operon model, DNA methylation, histone modification
- HL / AHL Only — deeper enzyme detail, Okazaki fragments, lac operon, miRNA regulation
- MCQ Practice — styled like real IB Paper 1 questions
- Exam Alerts — the traps and mistakes that cost marks
Aligned to IB Biology 2025 syllabus — A2.1 DNA Structure, A2.2 DNA Replication, A2.3 Transcription & Translation, A2.4 Gene Expression
Before diving in, here is the big picture: DNA is a master blueprint stored in the nucleus. When a cell needs to copy itself, it duplicates the blueprint precisely (replication). When a cell needs to build something, it reads a section of the blueprint and makes a working copy (transcription), then uses that working copy as instructions to build a protein (translation). Gene expression is the control system that decides which sections of the blueprint get read, when, and in which cells.
Jump to section: DNA Structure (A2.1) · DNA Replication (A2.2) · Transcription & Translation (A2.3) · Gene Expression & Epigenetics (A2.4) · MCQ Practice · Quick Reference
Videos on this page: DNA Replication · Transcription & Translation
Section 1: DNA Structure (A2.1)
DNA contains all the heritable information of a cell, but this only works because its structure is extraordinarily stable and remarkably precise. Understanding the structure explains every other topic in this section — replication depends on base pairing, transcription depends on the antiparallel strands, and gene regulation depends on the accessibility of the double helix.
1.1 The Double Helix
DNA is a double-stranded helix — two polynucleotide chains wound around a common axis, first modelled by Watson and Crick in 1953 using X-ray diffraction data from Franklin and Wilkins.
Key structural features:
- Two antiparallel strands (one runs ; the other runs )
- The sugar-phosphate backbone forms the outer rails of the helix
- Nitrogenous bases project inward from each strand and form pairs across the helix
- The helix makes one full turn every 10 base pairs
- The major groove and minor groove alternate along the outside — transcription factors bind here
Key structural terms to memorise:
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| Nucleotide | Monomer of DNA; consists of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base |
| Antiparallel | The two strands of DNA run in opposite directions ( and ) |
| Complementary base pairing | A pairs with T (2 hydrogen bonds); G pairs with C (3 hydrogen bonds) |
| Phosphodiester bond | Covalent bond linking the carbon of one nucleotide to the carbon of the next |
| Hydrogen bond | Weak bond holding the two complementary strands together; easily broken during replication |
| Double helix | The three-dimensional shape of DNA: two antiparallel strands coiled around each other |
| Base pair | One complementary pair across the helix (A—T or G—C) |
1.2 Nucleotides and Base Pairing
Each nucleotide in DNA consists of three covalently bonded components:
- A deoxyribose sugar (5-carbon; lacks the OH group at carbon, unlike ribose in RNA)
- A phosphate group (attached to the carbon of the sugar)
- A nitrogenous base — one of four types:
- Purines (double ring): Adenine (A), Guanine (G)
- Pyrimidines (single ring): Thymine (T), Cytosine (C)
Chargaff’s Rules — from measurements of base composition in many organisms:
- and in any DNA molecule
- Therefore: (purines = pyrimidines)
- The ratio varies between species — this is species-specific
Why 3 H-bonds for G—C? Guanine and cytosine have three complementary groups that form hydrogen bonds, whereas adenine and thymine form only two. This makes G—C pairs stronger. DNA with a higher G—C content has a higher melting temperature ().
Exam Alert: A pairs with T (NOT U — that is RNA). G pairs with C. A—T has 2 hydrogen bonds; G—C has 3 hydrogen bonds. If you are given a percentage for one base, you can calculate all others using Chargaff’s rules. For example: if A = 30%, then T = 30%, so G + C = 40%, meaning G = C = 20%.
Worked Example: Chargaff’s Rules Calculation
A DNA sample contains 22% guanine. Calculate the percentage of each of the other three bases.
Step 1: By Chargaff’s rules, , so C = 22%.
Step 2: G + C = 22 + 22 = 44%, so A + T = 100 - 44 = 56%.
Step 3: By Chargaff’s rules, , so A = T = 56 / 2 = 28%.
Answer: A = 28%, T = 28%, G = 22%, C = 22%.
Check: 28 + 28 + 22 + 22 = 100%. Correct.
Quick Recall — Section 1
Try to answer without scrolling up:
- Name the four bases in DNA and state the base pairing rules.
- What type of bond holds the two strands of the double helix together?
- DNA strands run antiparallel. What does this mean?
Reveal answers
- Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T); Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G). A-T has 2 hydrogen bonds; C-G has 3.
- Hydrogen bonds between complementary bases.
- One strand runs 5’ to 3’ and the other runs 3’ to 5’ — they run in opposite directions.
Section 2: DNA Replication (A2.2)
Before any cell can divide, it must copy its entire genome so that each daughter cell receives a complete set of instructions. Replication is extraordinarily accurate — the error rate is approximately per base pair — and this accuracy relies on a team of coordinated enzymes acting at the replication fork.
2.1 Semi-Conservative Replication
DNA replication is semi-conservative: each new double helix consists of one original (parental) strand and one newly synthesised strand. This was proven by the Meselson-Stahl experiment (1958), which used heavy () and light () isotopes of nitrogen to track DNA strands across generations.
flowchart TD
A["Original DNA\n(Both strands parental)"] --> B["Helicase unwinds &\nbreaks H-bonds"]
B --> C["Two template strands\nexposed at replication fork"]
C --> D["Primase adds\nRNA primer (5'→3')"]
D --> E["DNA Pol III extends\nnew strand (5'→3')"]
E --> F["Leading strand —\ncontinuous synthesis"]
E --> G["Lagging strand —\ndiscontinuous synthesis\n(Okazaki fragments)"]
F --> H["DNA Pol I replaces\nRNA primers with DNA"]
G --> H
H --> I["DNA Ligase seals\nnicks between fragments"]
I --> J["Two identical\ndouble-stranded DNA molecules"]
Each origin of replication creates a replication bubble: two replication forks moving in opposite directions away from the origin. Eukaryotes have multiple origins of replication per chromosome (essential given chromosome size); prokaryotes typically have one origin (oriC).
2.2 Enzymes of Replication
Enzymes and proteins of DNA replication:
| Enzyme / Protein | Function |
|---|---|
| Helicase | Unwinds and separates the double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs at the replication fork |
| Single-strand binding proteins (SSBPs) | Stabilise the separated template strands, preventing re-annealing |
| Primase | Synthesises a short RNA primer (5—10 nucleotides) on the template strand to provide a free -OH for DNA polymerase |
| DNA polymerase III HL | Main replicative polymerase; adds nucleotides to the end of the growing strand (can only extend, not start); also has proofreading exonuclease activity |
| DNA polymerase I | Removes RNA primers (has exonuclease activity) and replaces them with DNA nucleotides |
| DNA ligase | Seals the nick (phosphodiester bond) between the newly synthesised DNA and the adjacent fragment, joining Okazaki fragments |
| Topoisomerase | Relieves torsional stress (positive supercoiling) ahead of the replication fork by cutting and re-joining DNA |
2.3 Leading and Lagging Strand Synthesis HL
Because DNA polymerase can only synthesise new DNA in the direction, the two template strands are replicated differently:
Leading strand (template runs ):
- DNA Pol III synthesises continuously in the direction
- Only one primer needed per origin
- Synthesis moves toward the replication fork (same direction as fork movement)
Lagging strand (template runs ):
- Must be replicated in short fragments, each starting with a new RNA primer
- These fragments are called Okazaki fragments (~100—200 nt in eukaryotes; ~1000—2000 nt in prokaryotes)
- Each Okazaki fragment is synthesised , but moves away from the replication fork
- After synthesis: Pol I removes primers, fills gaps; Ligase joins fragments
Exam Alert: DNA polymerase works ONLY. The leading strand is synthesised toward the fork; the lagging strand is synthesised AWAY from the fork in Okazaki fragments. Both strands use the SAME fork but have different topologies. A classic exam trap: “synthesis is continuous on both strands” — only the leading strand is continuous.
Worked Example: IB-Style Replication Question
A circular bacterial chromosome is 4.6 million base pairs long. It replicates from a single origin of replication. Identify two enzymes active at the replication fork and state the function of each. (4 marks)
Model answer:
-
Helicase — breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs, unwinding the double helix to expose the template strands. (2 marks)
-
DNA polymerase III — adds deoxyribonucleotides to the -OH end of the growing strand in a direction, using the template strand as a guide by complementary base pairing. (2 marks)
Note: You could also name primase (synthesises RNA primer to provide -OH start point) or DNA ligase (joins Okazaki fragments on lagging strand). Always state both the enzyme name AND its specific function.
IB Tip: For 6-mark questions on replication, examiners want: (1) semi-conservative model named, (2) unwinding by helicase, (3) primer by primase, (4) complementary base pairing with DNA Pol III, (5) leading/lagging strand distinction, (6) Okazaki fragments and ligase. Hitting all six points secures full marks.
Quick Recall — Section 2
Try to answer without scrolling up:
- What does “semi-conservative” mean in the context of DNA replication?
- Name the enzyme that unwinds the double helix.
- Why is one strand called the “lagging strand”?
Reveal answers
- Each new DNA molecule consists of one original (parental) strand and one newly synthesised strand.
- Helicase.
- Because DNA polymerase can only synthesise in the 5’ to 3’ direction, the lagging strand must be copied in short fragments (Okazaki fragments) away from the replication fork, which is slower than continuous synthesis on the leading strand.
Watch: DNA Replication — Leading & Lagging Strands
Section 3: Transcription & Translation (A2.3)
Gene expression converts stored genetic information into functional proteins. This happens in two stages: transcription (DNA → RNA, in the nucleus) and translation (RNA → protein, at the ribosome). Together, these form the central dogma of molecular biology: DNA → RNA → Protein.
3.1 Transcription
Before the mechanics, here is the key idea: only one strand of DNA is used as a template for any given gene, and the RNA copy produced is a complementary, antiparallel copy of that template strand.
Stages of transcription:
- Initiation — RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region upstream of the gene. The promoter contains consensus sequences (e.g. TATA box) that are recognised by transcription factors. HL
- Elongation — RNA polymerase unwinds the DNA locally and moves along the template strand, synthesising a complementary mRNA strand in the direction. Uracil (U) pairs with adenine (A) in the template — RNA contains no thymine.
- Termination — RNA polymerase reaches a terminator sequence and dissociates, releasing the pre-mRNA transcript.
Post-transcriptional processing (eukaryotes only): HL
- 5’ cap (methylated guanosine) is added — protects mRNA from degradation and aids ribosome attachment
- Poly-A tail (100—250 adenine nucleotides) added at end — increases stability and aids export
- Splicing — introns (non-coding sequences) are removed by the spliceosome; exons (coding sequences) are joined together
- The mature mRNA is exported from the nucleus through nuclear pores to the cytoplasm
Exam Alert: Transcription uses RNA polymerase, NOT DNA polymerase. RNA uses Uracil instead of Thymine. The template strand is also called the antisense strand. The non-template strand (coding strand) has the same sequence as the mRNA (except T → U). Students frequently mix up which strand is read and in which direction.
3.2 Translation
Translation takes place at the ribosome in the cytoplasm (or on the rough endoplasmic reticulum for secreted proteins). It is the process of decoding the mRNA sequence into an amino acid sequence.
Key players:
Translation vocabulary:
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| Codon | A triplet of three consecutive nucleotides on mRNA; codes for one amino acid (or start/stop signal) |
| Anticodon | The complementary triplet on tRNA that base-pairs with the mRNA codon |
| tRNA | Transfer RNA; carries a specific amino acid to the ribosome; has an anticodon loop that matches the mRNA codon |
| rRNA | Ribosomal RNA; structural and catalytic component of the ribosome; catalyses peptide bond formation |
| Start codon | AUG — codes for methionine; marks the beginning of the coding sequence |
| Stop codon | UAA, UAG, or UGA — no corresponding tRNA; signals termination of translation |
| Ribosome | Two subunits (small + large); has three tRNA-binding sites: A (aminoacyl), P (peptidyl), E (exit) |
| Peptide bond | Covalent bond formed between amino acids during elongation; catalysed by rRNA (peptidyl transferase) |
| Polypeptide | A chain of amino acids joined by peptide bonds; folds into a functional protein after translation |
Ribosome subunits:
- Eukaryotes: 80S ribosome = 60S large subunit + 40S small subunit
- Prokaryotes: 70S ribosome = 50S large subunit + 30S small subunit
Stages of translation:
- Initiation — the small ribosomal subunit binds to the cap of mRNA and scans for the start codon (AUG). Initiator tRNA (carrying methionine) binds at the P site. Large subunit joins.
- Elongation — a charged tRNA enters the A site; its anticodon base-pairs with the mRNA codon. A peptide bond forms between the growing polypeptide (in P site) and the new amino acid (in A site). The ribosome translocates one codon in the direction; the now-empty tRNA moves to the E site and exits.
- Termination — a stop codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA) enters the A site; no tRNA matches. Release factors cause the ribosome to dissociate and the polypeptide is released.
Polyribosomes (polysomes): Multiple ribosomes can translate the same mRNA simultaneously, increasing the rate of protein production.
Worked Example: Decoding a Codon Table
A segment of the template DNA strand reads: 3'-TAC-CGT-ATT-ACT-5'
(a) Write the sequence of the corresponding mRNA. (b) Using the codon table below, determine the amino acid sequence produced.
| Codon | Amino Acid |
|---|---|
| AUG | Methionine (Met) — Start |
| GCA | Alanine (Ala) |
| UAA | Stop |
| UGA | Stop |
| GUG | Valine (Val) |
| UAU | Tyrosine (Tyr) |
Step 1 (a): The template DNA strand is , so transcription produces mRNA in the direction. Replace T with U and write the complementary bases:
Template (DNA): -TAC-CGT-ATT-ACT-
mRNA: -AUG-GCA-UAA-UGA-
Step 2 (b): Decode each codon:
- AUG = Methionine (start)
- GCA = Alanine
- UAA = Stop
Answer: The polypeptide is Met-Ala (translation stops at UAA; UGA is never read).
Key point: Translation always starts at AUG and stops at the first stop codon encountered.
Exam Alert: mRNA carries codons; tRNA carries anticodons. The anticodon is complementary AND antiparallel to the codon. If mRNA codon = 5’-AUG-3’, the anticodon = 3’-UAC-5’ (written as 5’-CAU-3’). Students routinely forget the antiparallel orientation. Also: rRNA is the structural and catalytic component of the ribosome — it is NOT the RNA that carries the genetic message (that is mRNA) or the amino acid (that is tRNA).
Watch: Transcription & Translation
Section 4: Gene Expression & Epigenetics (A2.4)
Not all genes are active in every cell at every time. A liver cell and a neuron contain identical DNA, yet they are structurally and functionally completely different — because different genes are switched on. Gene expression regulation allows a single genome to produce hundreds of specialised cell types.
4.1 Regulation of Gene Expression
Gene expression can be regulated at multiple levels:
- Transcriptional regulation — controlling whether RNA polymerase transcribes a gene (most common and energetically efficient)
- Post-transcriptional regulation — controlling mRNA processing, stability, or translation (e.g. by miRNA) HL
- Post-translational regulation — modifying the protein after synthesis (e.g. phosphorylation, cleavage)
The lac Operon as a Model HL
The lac operon in Escherichia coli is the classic model for transcriptional regulation. It controls the expression of genes needed to metabolise lactose, and only switches them on when lactose is present AND glucose is absent.
Operon components:
- Promoter — site where RNA polymerase binds
- Operator — DNA sequence where the repressor binds (between promoter and structural genes)
- Structural genes — lacZ (-galactosidase), lacY (permease), lacA (transacetylase)
- Repressor gene (lacI) — always expressed; produces the lac repressor protein
Regulation logic:
| Condition | Repressor state | Transcription |
|---|---|---|
| No lactose, glucose present | Repressor binds operator | OFF (genes not needed) |
| Lactose present, no glucose | Allolactose (inducer) binds repressor → repressor changes shape → releases operator | ON (lactose needs to be metabolised) |
| Both lactose and glucose present | Repressor off operator, but low cAMP → weak transcription | Weak (cell prefers glucose) |
cAMP and catabolite repression (when glucose is absent, cAMP is high, activating CAP protein that enhances transcription) ensures the lac genes are fully active only when lactose is the only carbon source available. This is positive regulation by CAP alongside negative regulation by the repressor.
IB Tip: The lac operon is a classic 6-mark question. Always describe: (1) what the repressor does by default (blocks transcription), (2) what the inducer is (allolactose, not lactose directly), (3) what happens when allolactose binds the repressor (shape change, release of operator), and (4) the result (RNA polymerase can transcribe). Full marks require mechanistic detail, not just “the genes switch on”.
Post-Transcriptional Regulation by miRNA HL
MicroRNA (miRNA) are small non-coding RNA molecules (~22 nucleotides) that regulate gene expression after transcription.
Mechanism:
- miRNA genes are transcribed to form a long primary miRNA (pri-miRNA)
- The pri-miRNA is cleaved in the nucleus by the enzyme Drosha into a ~70 nt hairpin structure called the pre-miRNA, which is exported to the cytoplasm
- The pre-miRNA is processed by the enzyme Dicer into a short double-stranded RNA (~22 nt)
- One strand is loaded into the RISC (RNA-induced silencing complex)
- RISC uses the miRNA as a guide to find complementary sequences in the 3’ UTR of target mRNA
- RISC either cleaves the mRNA (if match is perfect) or represses translation (if match is partial)
Result: the target gene’s protein is NOT produced (or is produced at reduced levels), even though the gene was transcribed. This is called RNA interference (RNAi).
miRNAs are crucial for development and cell differentiation — a single miRNA can regulate hundreds of target genes simultaneously.
4.2 Epigenetics
Epigenetics is the study of heritable changes in gene expression that do NOT involve changes to the DNA sequence itself. The DNA code is unchanged — what changes is how accessible or readable that code is.
The two major epigenetic mechanisms are:
1. DNA Methylation
- Addition of a methyl group () to cytosine bases, typically at CpG dinucleotides
- Methylation of a promoter region generally silences gene expression by preventing transcription factor binding
- Methylation patterns are heritable through cell division (maintained by methyltransferase enzymes)
- Example: X-chromosome inactivation (Barr body formation in mammalian females) is maintained by methylation
2. Histone Modification
- DNA is wrapped around histone proteins to form nucleosomes (fundamental unit of chromatin)
- Chemical groups can be added to the histone tails:
- Acetylation (addition of acetyl groups) → loosens chromatin (euchromatin) → gene expression ON
- Deacetylation → tightens chromatin (heterochromatin) → gene expression OFF
- Methylation of histones can either activate or repress, depending on which histone residue is modified
- The combination of histone modifications across a region is called the histone code
Epigenetics key terms:
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| Epigenetics | Heritable changes in gene expression not due to changes in DNA sequence |
| DNA methylation | Addition of to cytosine; typically silences gene expression |
| Histone | Protein around which DNA is wrapped; modifications alter chromatin accessibility |
| Nucleosome | Unit of chromatin: 8 histones + ~147 bp of DNA wound around them |
| Euchromatin | Loosely packed chromatin; genes are accessible and expressed |
| Heterochromatin | Tightly packed chromatin; genes are silenced |
| Acetylation | Addition of acetyl group to histone tail; associated with active gene expression |
| CpG island | Region of DNA with high CpG dinucleotide density; often found at promoters |
Exam Alert: Epigenetic changes are NOT mutations. A mutation changes the DNA sequence permanently (and randomly). An epigenetic change modifies how the DNA is packaged or read — the sequence itself is unchanged. Epigenetic changes are potentially reversible and can be influenced by environment (diet, stress, toxins). This distinction is a frequent MCQ distractor and is commonly worth 2 marks in Paper 2.
Worked Example: Epigenetics Question
Explain why two genetically identical twins may develop different diseases later in life. (3 marks)
Model answer:
Although identical twins have the same DNA sequence (same genotype), their epigenomes can diverge over time due to differences in environment (1). DNA methylation patterns may differ — for example, genes involved in disease susceptibility may be methylated (silenced) in one twin but not the other (1). Histone acetylation patterns may also differ, altering chromatin accessibility and changing which genes are actively transcribed (1).
Key principle: Same genotype, different epigenome → different phenotype (including disease risk).
MCQ Practice
Question 1
A DNA molecule contains 34% guanine. What is the percentage of adenine?
A. 34%
B. 32%
C. 16% ← CORRECT
D. 68%
Why: G = 34%, so by Chargaff’s rules C = 34%. Therefore A + T = 100 − 68 = 32%, and since A = T, adenine = 16%. Option A confuses G with A. Option B gives A + T combined. Option D gives G + C combined.
Question 2
During DNA replication, what is the function of DNA ligase?
A. Unwind the double helix at the replication fork
B. Synthesise new nucleotides in the direction
C. Seal the nicks between Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand ← CORRECT
D. Remove RNA primers from the template strand
Why: Ligase joins the end of one fragment to the end of the next by forming a phosphodiester bond — it seals the nick. Option A is helicase. Option B describes DNA Pol III (although ligase does form a bond, it is not synthesising new nucleotides). Option D is DNA Pol I.
Question 3
Which of the following is a difference between transcription and DNA replication?
A. Transcription uses deoxyribonucleotides; replication uses ribonucleotides
B. Transcription produces a single-stranded product; replication produces a double-stranded product ← CORRECT
C. Transcription requires a primer; replication does not
D. Transcription occurs in the cytoplasm; replication occurs in the nucleus
Why: mRNA is single-stranded; the replicated DNA is double-stranded. Option A has the types reversed — transcription uses ribonucleotides (to make RNA); replication uses deoxyribonucleotides. Option C has it backwards — replication requires a primer; transcription does not. Option D has it backwards for eukaryotes — both occur in the nucleus (transcription in nucleus; replication in nucleus).
Question 4
A ribosome is at a codon that reads 5’-UAA-3’. What happens next?
A. A tRNA carrying tyrosine enters the A site
B. The ribosome translocates one codon in the direction
C. Translation terminates and the polypeptide is released ← CORRECT
D. The mRNA is degraded immediately
Why: UAA is one of the three stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA). No tRNA has a matching anticodon, so a release factor binds, triggering release of the polypeptide and dissociation of ribosome subunits. Option A is wrong — UAA codes for no amino acid (tyrosine codons are UAU and UAC). Option B gets the direction wrong (ribosomes move along mRNA). Option D is not triggered directly by a stop codon.
Question 5 HL
In the lac operon, what is the role of allolactose?
A. It directly activates RNA polymerase binding to the promoter
B. It acts as an inducer by binding the repressor and preventing it from binding the operator ← CORRECT
C. It methylates the operator region to allow transcription
D. It is the substrate for the enzyme encoded by the lacZ gene
Why: Allolactose (a metabolite of lactose) binds to the lac repressor protein, causing a conformational change that reduces the repressor’s affinity for the operator. When the repressor is released from the operator, RNA polymerase can transcribe the structural genes. Option A is the role of CAP (with cAMP), not allolactose. Option C describes an epigenetic mechanism, not operon regulation. Option D confuses the regulatory role of allolactose with the metabolic substrate of the lacZ enzyme.
Question 6
Which statement about epigenetic changes is correct?
A. Epigenetic changes always involve a mutation in the DNA base sequence
B. Histone acetylation tightens chromatin and silences gene expression
C. DNA methylation of a promoter region typically reduces gene expression ← CORRECT
D. Epigenetic changes are never passed from parent cell to daughter cell
Why: Methylation of CpG sites in a promoter prevents transcription factor binding and typically silences the gene. Option A is the definition of a mutation — epigenetic changes do NOT alter the DNA sequence. Option B has the effect of acetylation reversed — acetylation loosens chromatin (euchromatin) and activates expression; it is deacetylation that silences. Option D is false — DNA methylation patterns are heritable and are maintained during cell division by methyltransferase.
Question 7
Which row correctly describes the differences between mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA?
| mRNA | tRNA | rRNA | |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | Carries anticodon | Carries amino acid | Found in nucleus |
| B | Carries genetic code | Carries anticodon | Structural component of ribosome |
| C | Produced in cytoplasm | Carries codons | Catalyses peptide bonds |
| D | Single-stranded only | Double-stranded | Structural only |
B is CORRECT ← CORRECT
Why: mRNA carries the genetic code (codons); tRNA carries the anticodon and the amino acid; rRNA is both structural and catalytic (peptidyl transferase activity). Option A assigns the anticodon to mRNA (wrong — that is tRNA). Option C says mRNA is made in the cytoplasm (wrong — transcription occurs in the nucleus). Option D says tRNA is double-stranded (wrong — tRNA is single-stranded but folds into a cloverleaf shape).
Quick Reference
DNA vs RNA: Key Differences
| Feature | DNA | RNA |
|---|---|---|
| Sugar | Deoxyribose | Ribose |
| Bases | A, T, G, C | A, U, G, C |
| Strands | Double-stranded (usually) | Single-stranded (usually) |
| Location | Mainly nucleus | Nucleus and cytoplasm |
| Function | Long-term genetic storage | Gene expression intermediary |
| Stability | Very stable | Relatively unstable |
Replication vs Transcription vs Translation
| Feature | Replication | Transcription | Translation |
|---|---|---|---|
| Template | Both DNA strands | One DNA strand | mRNA |
| Product | DNA | RNA (mRNA/tRNA/rRNA) | Polypeptide |
| Enzyme | DNA Pol III | RNA polymerase | Ribosome (rRNA) |
| Location | Nucleus | Nucleus | Cytoplasm/RER |
| Direction | (product) | along mRNA | |
| Primer needed? | Yes (RNA primer) | No | No |
Mixed Practice — Exam Style
How to use this section: Unlike topic-specific practice, these questions are interleaved — they mix all topics from this guide in random order. Before answering, identify which concept or topic area the question is testing. This is exactly the skill you need on Paper 1 and Paper 2, where you don’t know in advance which topic each question covers.
-
[DNA Replication] During DNA replication, DNA polymerase III can only add nucleotides in the direction. What is the consequence of this for the lagging strand?
A. The lagging strand is synthesised continuously in one long piece
B. The lagging strand is synthesised in short fragments (Okazaki fragments) in the direction, away from the replication fork
C. The lagging strand is synthesised by RNA polymerase, not DNA polymerase
D. The lagging strand cannot be replicated and is lost after each division
-
[Transcription] During transcription, which strand of the DNA double helix serves as the template?
A. Both strands are transcribed simultaneously
B. The coding (sense) strand, read , is transcribed
C. The template (antisense) strand, read by RNA polymerase, is used to produce mRNA with the same sequence as the coding strand (with U instead of T)
D. The choice of strand depends on the organism (prokaryote vs eukaryote)
-
[Gene Regulation] The lac operon in E. coli is repressed in the absence of lactose. When lactose is present, it acts as an inducer. The inducer molecule:
A. Directly activates RNA polymerase to transcribe the structural genes
B. Binds to the repressor protein, changing its shape so it can no longer bind to the operator, allowing transcription to proceed
C. Degrades the repressor protein permanently
D. Methylates the promoter region, permanently activating the operon
-
[Translation — Codons] The mRNA sequence codes for:
A. Two amino acids followed by a stop codon (methionine, arginine, stop)
B. Three amino acids (methionine, arginine, glutamine)
C. One amino acid only (methionine is the start and stop codon)
D. This sequence cannot be translated because UAA is a start codon
-
[Mutations — Distractor] A single base insertion (frameshift mutation) at position 3 of a coding sequence is generally more harmful than a single base substitution (point mutation) at the same position. The best explanation is:
A. Insertions change the molecular mass of the protein more than substitutions
B. Insertions cause a shift in the reading frame, altering every codon downstream and likely producing a non-functional protein; substitutions change at most one amino acid, and the genetic code’s degeneracy may mean the amino acid is unchanged
C. Substitutions are always silent mutations; insertions are always missense mutations
D. Insertions are more harmful only if they occur in an exon, not an intron
-
[DNA Replication — Enzymes] Helicase is to unwinding the double helix as ____________ is to sealing nicks between Okazaki fragments.
A. DNA polymerase I
B. Primase
C. DNA ligase
D. Topoisomerase
-
[Post-Transcriptional Modification] In eukaryotes, pre-mRNA is processed before leaving the nucleus. Which of the following is NOT a step in this processing?
A. Addition of a 5’ methyl-guanosine cap
B. Addition of a poly-A tail to the 3’ end
C. Splicing out of introns by the spliceosome
D. Methylation of the DNA template to prevent re-transcription
-
[Translation — Ribosomes] During translation, the ribosome moves along the mRNA in the direction. The A site, P site, and E site have specific functions. In what order does a tRNA carrying an amino acid move through these sites?
A. E site → P site → A site
B. A site → P site → E site
C. P site → A site → E site
D. A site → E site → P site
-
[Mutations — Types] A point mutation changes a codon from GAA (glutamic acid) to GUA (valine). This mutation is most accurately described as:
A. A silent mutation — the amino acid is unchanged
B. A nonsense mutation — the codon now codes for a stop
C. A missense mutation — a different amino acid is incorporated, potentially altering protein structure and function
D. A frameshift mutation — the reading frame is disrupted
-
[Gene Expression — Central Dogma] A researcher discovers a virus that can copy its RNA genome into DNA inside a host cell. This process requires an enzyme called reverse transcriptase. This finding challenges which aspect of the original central dogma?
A. That DNA can be transcribed to RNA
B. That RNA can be translated to protein
C. That information flows in one direction only — originally stated as DNA → RNA → protein, with no provision for RNA → DNA
D. That proteins can be converted back to nucleic acids
Show Answers
-
B — Okazaki fragments. Because DNA polymerase can only add to the end of a growing strand, the lagging strand must be synthesised in short fragments moving away from the replication fork (in the direction). These fragments are later joined by DNA ligase. A describes the leading strand. D is incorrect — the lagging strand is fully replicated.
-
C — The template (antisense) strand is read by RNA polymerase, producing mRNA with the same sequence as the coding strand (substituting U for T). B is a common error — the coding strand is NOT the template; it is the strand whose sequence the mRNA matches.
-
B — The inducer (allolactose) binds to the repressor, causing a conformational change that prevents the repressor from binding the operator. RNA polymerase is then free to transcribe the structural genes (lacZ, lacY, lacA). A incorrectly states that the inducer directly activates RNA polymerase.
-
A — AUG = methionine (start), CGU = arginine, UAA = stop codon. The result is a dipeptide (two amino acids), then translation terminates. UAA is one of three stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA). D is wrong — UAA is not a start codon.
-
B — Frameshift mutations displace the reading frame for all codons downstream of the insertion, usually producing a completely different and non-functional polypeptide. Point mutations change at most one codon. C is wrong — substitutions can be missense, nonsense, or silent. D is wrong — the key factor is frame-shifting, not intron/exon location (although non-coding region mutations may have less effect).
-
C — DNA ligase seals the phosphodiester bonds between adjacent Okazaki fragments (and between the RNA primer replacement and the existing DNA). Primase (B) synthesises RNA primers. Topoisomerase (D) relieves supercoiling ahead of the replication fork.
-
D — DNA methylation of the template is not a standard step in eukaryotic pre-mRNA processing. The three real steps are: 5’ cap (A), poly-A tail (B), and splicing of introns (C). These modifications protect the mRNA from degradation and enable nuclear export.
-
B — A site → P site → E site. An incoming aminoacyl-tRNA enters the A (aminoacyl) site, where a peptide bond forms. The growing peptide shifts to the P (peptidyl) site. The tRNA then moves to the E (exit) site and is released. A describes the reverse order.
-
C — Missense mutation. GAA (Glu) → GUA (Val) changes one amino acid for another. This is not silent (A) because the amino acid changes. It is not nonsense (B) because no stop codon is introduced. It is not a frameshift (D) because no bases are inserted or deleted.
-
C — Reverse transcriptase (found in retroviruses like HIV) copies RNA into DNA, demonstrating that information can flow RNA → DNA. This contradicted the “central dogma” as originally described by Crick in 1958, which implied unidirectional information flow with no provision for reverse transcription.
May 2026 Prediction Questions
These are NOT official IB questions. These are trend-based practice questions written to reflect the topic areas and question styles most likely to appear on the May 2026 IB Biology HL Paper 2. Based on recent exam patterns (2022-2025), expect heavy weighting on: regulation of gene expression, the process of translation, types of mutations and their consequences, and epigenetics.
Question 1 [Gene Expression Regulation] [~8 marks]
In prokaryotes, the lac operon is a well-studied model of gene regulation.
(a) Outline the structure of the lac operon, identifying the role of the promoter, operator, and structural genes.
(b) Explain how the lac operon is regulated when lactose is absent and when lactose is present.
(c) Suggest why regulation of gene expression is important for a bacterium’s survival, with reference to energy efficiency.
Show Solution
Part (a) — Structure of the lac operon
- Promoter: The region of DNA where RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription of the structural genes.
- Operator: A short DNA sequence between the promoter and structural genes where the repressor protein binds.
- Structural genes (, , ): Code for enzymes involved in lactose metabolism. encodes -galactosidase (breaks lactose into glucose and galactose). encodes permease (transports lactose into the cell).
A regulatory gene (), located upstream, codes for the repressor protein.
Part (b) — Regulation
When lactose is absent:
- The gene is constitutively expressed, producing the repressor protein.
- The repressor binds to the operator.
- RNA polymerase cannot transcribe the structural genes (the repressor physically blocks it).
- No enzymes for lactose metabolism are produced.
When lactose is present:
- Lactose (converted to allolactose) acts as an inducer.
- Allolactose binds to the repressor protein, causing a conformational change.
- The repressor can no longer bind to the operator.
- RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and transcribes the structural genes.
- -galactosidase and permease are produced.
Part (c) — Importance for survival
- Producing enzymes requires amino acids, energy (ATP), and ribosomes.
- If lactose is not available, producing lactose-metabolising enzymes would waste energy and resources.
- By regulating gene expression, the bacterium only produces enzymes when they are needed, conserving energy for essential processes.
- This gives a selective advantage in competitive environments where resources are limited.
Answer: The lac operon uses a repressor/inducer system to ensure lactose-metabolising enzymes are only produced when lactose is present, conserving cellular energy and resources.
Question 2 [Translation] [~7 marks]
Describe the process of translation in eukaryotic cells.
(a) Outline the roles of mRNA, tRNA, and ribosomes during translation.
(b) Describe the events that occur during the elongation phase of translation.
(c) Explain how a single mRNA molecule can be translated by multiple ribosomes simultaneously, and state the term for this structure.
Show Solution
Part (a) — Roles of mRNA, tRNA, and ribosomes
- mRNA: Carries the genetic code (as a sequence of codons) from the nucleus to the ribosome in the cytoplasm. Each codon (triplet of bases) specifies one amino acid.
- tRNA: Transfer RNA molecules carry specific amino acids to the ribosome. Each tRNA has an anticodon (complementary to an mRNA codon) and an amino acid attachment site. There is at least one tRNA for each of the 20 amino acids.
- Ribosomes: The site of translation. Composed of a large and small subunit. The ribosome has three binding sites: A site (aminoacyl — incoming tRNA), P site (peptidyl — tRNA holding the growing polypeptide), and E site (exit — tRNA leaves after releasing its amino acid).
Part (b) — Elongation phase
- A tRNA carrying an amino acid enters the A site of the ribosome. Its anticodon pairs with the complementary mRNA codon by base pairing.
- A peptide bond forms between the amino acid at the A site and the growing polypeptide chain held at the P site. This is catalysed by peptidyl transferase (a ribozyme in the large subunit).
- The ribosome translocates (moves) one codon along the mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
- The tRNA that was in the P site (now empty) moves to the E site and is released.
- The tRNA that was in the A site (now carrying the polypeptide) moves to the P site.
- A new tRNA enters the vacant A site, and the cycle repeats.
Part (c) — Polyribosomes
- Multiple ribosomes can bind to the same mRNA molecule simultaneously, each at a different point along the mRNA.
- Each ribosome independently translates the mRNA, producing a separate copy of the polypeptide.
- This structure is called a polyribosome (or polysome).
- This increases the efficiency of translation, as many copies of the protein can be produced from a single mRNA in a short time.
Answer: Translation involves mRNA providing the codon sequence, tRNA delivering amino acids, and ribosomes catalysing peptide bond formation. Multiple ribosomes on one mRNA (a polysome) allow efficient parallel protein synthesis.
Question 3 [Mutations] [~6 marks]
A gene has the following mRNA sequence for the first six codons:
A point mutation changes the third codon from to .
(a) State the type of point mutation this represents and explain your reasoning.
(b) Using the genetic code, determine the amino acid change caused by this mutation and predict its likely effect on protein function.
(c) Distinguish between a missense mutation and a nonsense mutation, giving an example codon change for each.
Show Solution
Part (a) — Type of mutation
This is a missense (substitution) mutation. A single base has been changed () — specifically, the second base changes from U to A. This changes the codon, which codes for a different amino acid. It is not a frameshift because no bases are inserted or deleted.
Part (b) — Amino acid change
- codes for phenylalanine (Phe).
- codes for tyrosine (Tyr).
Likely effect on protein function:
- Both phenylalanine and tyrosine are aromatic amino acids, but tyrosine has a hydroxyl group () that phenylalanine lacks.
- This could alter hydrogen bonding, protein folding, or active site shape if the amino acid is in a critical region.
- If the mutation is in a non-critical region, the protein may still function normally (neutral mutation).
- The effect depends on the location of the amino acid in the protein’s 3D structure.
Part (c) — Missense vs nonsense
| Type | Definition | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Missense | A base substitution that changes one codon to code for a different amino acid | (Glu Val, as in sickle cell anaemia) |
| Nonsense | A base substitution that changes a codon to a stop codon, causing premature termination of translation | (Tyr Stop) |
Answer: The change is a missense mutation (Phe Tyr). Its effect depends on the amino acid’s position in the protein. Nonsense mutations differ by producing a premature stop codon.
Exam Practice — DNA Replication & Gene Expression
Practice with exam-style questions organised by paper type. Try each question before revealing the answer.
Paper 1 — Multiple Choice
2 questions · 1 mark each
During DNA replication, which enzyme unwinds the double helix?
Correct answer: B
Helicase unwinds the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs. DNA polymerase III (A) synthesises new DNA strands. Ligase (C) joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand. RNA primase (D) synthesises short RNA primers.
Which of the following correctly describes semi-conservative replication?
Correct answer: B
Semi-conservative replication means each daughter DNA molecule contains one original (parental) strand and one newly synthesised strand. This was demonstrated by the Meselson-Stahl experiment using nitrogen isotopes. Option A describes conservative replication. Option C describes dispersive replication. Option D describes neither model accurately.
Paper 2 — Short Answer
1 question · 5 marks total
Command term: Outline
Outline the process of transcription in eukaryotic cells.
Mark Scheme
- [1]RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region on the template / antisense strand of DNA.
- [1]RNA polymerase separates the two DNA strands / unwinds the DNA at the gene.
- [1]Free RNA nucleotides are assembled along the template strand by complementary base pairing (A-U, T-A, C-G, G-C).
- [1]RNA polymerase moves along the template strand in the 3' to 5' direction, synthesising mRNA in the 5' to 3' direction.
- [1]Transcription stops when RNA polymerase reaches a terminator sequence.
- [1]In eukaryotes, the pre-mRNA is processed: introns are spliced out and a 5' cap and poly-A tail are added to form mature mRNA.