IB Biology HL: Mutations, Gene Editing, Reproduction & Water Potential
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Topics Covered
- Mutations and Gene Editing (D1.1, D1.2)
- Water Potential and Osmosis (D2.1)
- Reproduction and Development (D3.1, D3.2)
- Gene Expression Regulation HL (D4.1, D4.2)
- Mixed Practice — Exam Style
- May 2026 Prediction Questions
Aligned to IB Biology HL 2025 syllabus — Theme D: Continuity and Change
Jump to section: Mutations & Gene Editing · Water Potential · Reproduction · Gene Expression HL · Mixed Practice · Predictions
Section 1: Mutations and Gene Editing (D1.1, D1.2)
A mutation is a heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA. Mutations are the ultimate source of all genetic variation. Without mutation, evolution could not occur — but mutations can also cause disease.
1.1 Types of Gene Mutations (Point Mutations)
Gene mutations (also called point mutations) affect individual nucleotides within a gene. There are two main categories:
Substitution mutations replace one nucleotide with another. Because the genetic code is degenerate (multiple codons encode the same amino acid), a substitution may or may not change the amino acid sequence:
Consequences of substitution mutations:
| Type | Description | Example / Consequence |
|---|---|---|
| Silent (synonymous) | Base change does NOT alter the amino acid | — both encode phenylalanine. No change in protein. |
| Missense | Base change alters ONE amino acid in the polypeptide | Sickle-cell anaemia: changes glutamate to valine in haemoglobin |
| Nonsense | Base change creates a premature STOP codon | Polypeptide is truncated; usually non-functional |
Insertion and deletion mutations add or remove one or more nucleotide bases. Because codons are read as triplets, adding or removing a base shifts the reading frame of all downstream codons — these are called frameshift mutations.
Exam Alert — Frameshift mutations cause greater disruption than substitutions. A substitution alters at most one amino acid. A frameshift changes every codon downstream of the insertion/deletion, altering the entire C-terminal portion of the protein and often introducing a premature stop codon. When a question asks why an insertion is more harmful than a substitution, your answer must include the phrase “reading frame shift.”
1.2 Chromosomal Mutations
Chromosomal mutations (also called chromosomal aberrations) affect the number or structure of entire chromosomes, not just single nucleotides.
Structural chromosomal mutations:
| Type | Description | Consequence |
|---|---|---|
| Deletion | Segment of a chromosome is lost | Missing genes; often lethal if large |
| Duplication | Segment is repeated | Extra copies of genes; can lead to dosage effects |
| Inversion | Segment is reversed within the chromosome | Disrupts gene regulation; crossing over problems in meiosis |
| Translocation | Segment moves to a different (non-homologous) chromosome | Disrupts genes at breakpoints; may create fusion genes |
Numerical chromosomal mutations (aneuploidy):
Failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate during meiosis (non-disjunction) produces gametes with incorrect chromosome numbers. If an aneuploid gamete is fertilised, the resulting zygote has an abnormal chromosome count.
| Condition | Chromosomal change | Consequence |
|---|---|---|
| Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) | Three copies of chromosome 21 | Characteristic phenotype; learning differences; heart defects |
| Klinefelter syndrome (XXY) | Extra X in males | Infertility; reduced testosterone; tall stature |
| Turner syndrome (XO) | One X chromosome in females | Infertility; short stature; neck webbing |
IB exam tip: Non-disjunction can occur in meiosis I (homologues fail to separate) or meiosis II (sister chromatids fail to separate). In both cases the result is aneuploid gametes. Questions may ask you to distinguish the meiotic stage at which non-disjunction occurred based on the gametes produced — this is a common HL mark-scheme target.
1.3 Mutagens
A mutagen is any agent that increases the rate of mutation above the spontaneous background rate.
Categories of mutagens:
| Category | Examples | Mechanism |
|---|---|---|
| Physical | UV radiation, X-rays, gamma rays | UV causes thymine dimers (adjacent thymines bond covalently); ionising radiation breaks DNA strands |
| Chemical | Nitrous acid, benzene, aflatoxin | Deaminate, alkylate, or intercalate between bases, causing replication errors |
| Biological | Certain viruses (e.g. HPV, Hepatitis B) | Insert viral DNA near proto-oncogenes; disrupt normal cell-cycle control |
The link between mutations and cancer: proto-oncogenes (genes that promote cell division) can become oncogenes through mutation, driving uncontrolled proliferation. Tumour suppressor genes (e.g. p53, BRCA1) normally halt damaged cells; loss-of-function mutations remove this brake.
1.4 CRISPR-Cas9 Gene Editing
CRISPR-Cas9 (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) is a precise gene-editing technology derived from a bacterial immune system.
Mechanism:
- A guide RNA (gRNA) is designed to be complementary to the target DNA sequence (up to ~20 nucleotides).
- The gRNA binds to the Cas9 endonuclease protein, forming a complex.
- The gRNA-Cas9 complex scans the genome for the matching sequence and binds to it.
- Cas9 cuts both strands of the DNA at the target site (double-strand break).
- The cell’s repair machinery then acts:
- Non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) — error-prone; often introduces small insertions/deletions (indels) that disrupt the gene (knockout)
- Homology-directed repair (HDR) — if a template DNA is supplied, the correct sequence is inserted (knock-in)
Worked Example: CRISPR mechanism steps
A scientist wants to correct the mutation in the CFTR gene that causes cystic fibrosis (a single-nucleotide deletion in exon 10, ).
(a) Describe the role of the guide RNA in CRISPR-Cas9 editing. [2]
(b) Explain which DNA repair pathway the scientist would want to exploit and why. [2]
Part (a) [2 marks]:
- The guide RNA is complementary to the target DNA sequence at the CFTR mutation site.
- It directs the Cas9 endonuclease to the correct location in the genome by base-pairing with the target sequence, enabling site-specific cutting.
Part (b) [2 marks]:
- The scientist would use homology-directed repair (HDR) by supplying a correct template containing the wild-type CFTR sequence.
- NHEJ is error-prone and would likely introduce further disruptive mutations rather than restoring the correct sequence; HDR uses the template to accurately replace the deleted nucleotide.
1.5 Gene Therapy
Gene therapy aims to treat or cure genetic diseases by introducing, altering, or replacing genetic material in a patient’s cells.
Two approaches to gene therapy:
| Approach | Description | Example |
|---|---|---|
| Somatic gene therapy | Target cells are non-reproductive body cells. Changes affect only the treated patient and are NOT heritable. | Treating sickle-cell anaemia by editing bone marrow stem cells |
| Germline gene therapy | Target cells are gametes or early embryos. Changes affect ALL cells of the resulting organism and ARE heritable. | Theoretically correcting a heritable mutation before implantation (currently banned in most countries) |
Delivery methods (vectors):
- Viral vectors — modified retroviruses or adeno-associated viruses (AAV) that cannot replicate but insert therapeutic genes. Risk: insertional mutagenesis if the virus integrates near a proto-oncogene.
- Non-viral methods — liposomes (lipid nanoparticles), electroporation, or direct injection. Generally safer but less efficient.
Exam Alert — Ethical considerations of gene editing. IB questions frequently ask you to “discuss ethical issues” surrounding CRISPR or gene therapy. You must present both sides. Potential benefits: curing heritable diseases, reducing suffering. Concerns: off-target edits, germline editing creating “designer babies,” inequitable access, unintended ecological consequences if edited organisms are released. A balanced answer earns more marks than a one-sided list.
Section 2: Water Potential and Osmosis (D2.1)
Osmosis is the passive movement of water molecules across a partially permeable membrane from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential.
2.1 Water Potential (Ψ)
Water potential (, psi) measures the tendency of water to move from one location to another. It is measured in kilopascals (kPa) and always has a value less than or equal to zero for biological solutions (pure water at atmospheric pressure = ).
The total water potential of a cell or solution is the sum of two components:
Components of water potential:
| Component | Symbol | Definition | Sign | Effect on |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Solute potential (osmotic potential) | Due to dissolved solutes; solutes reduce the free energy of water | Always negative (or zero for pure water) | Lowers | |
| Pressure potential | Due to physical pressure on the water | Positive in turgid plant cells (turgor pressure); can be negative (tension) in xylem | Raises if positive; lowers if negative |
Key values to remember:
- Pure water: kPa
- A dilute solution: kPa (slightly negative)
- A concentrated solution: kPa (very negative)
Direction of osmosis: Water always moves from the region of higher (less negative) to the region of lower (more negative) .
2.2 Solute Potential ()
The solute potential depends on the concentration of dissolved solutes. As solute concentration increases, becomes more negative, which lowers the overall water potential and makes water less likely to leave (or more likely to enter).
For a simple ideal solution:
where is the ionisation factor (number of particles per formula unit), is molar concentration (), is the ideal gas constant (), and is temperature in Kelvin.
IB exam tip: You will not be required to calculate from the formula in most IB questions. However, you must know the relationship: more solute = more negative = lower water potential = greater tendency to absorb water. This logic underpins every osmosis question.
2.3 Pressure Potential () and Turgor Pressure
In plant cells, the rigid cellulose cell wall resists expansion when water enters. As water enters by osmosis, the cell swells and the cell wall pushes back with a wall pressure. This inward pressure from the wall equals the turgor pressure pushing outward from within the cell.
- Turgor pressure is the positive that builds up inside a plant cell when it absorbs water.
- A fully turgid cell has maximum , and because is positive it partially offsets the negative , raising the cell’s overall until eventually and net movement stops.
- A flaccid cell (lost water) has ; the cell’s equals its (very negative).
- Plasmolysis occurs when a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution: water leaves so rapidly that the plasma membrane pulls away from the cell wall. The cell is said to be plasmolysed.
Worked Example: Calculating net water movement
A plant cell has and .
It is placed in a solution with .
(a) Calculate the water potential of the cell. [1]
(b) State the direction of net water movement. [1]
(c) Predict what will happen to as water moves. [2]
Part (a):
Part (b): Water moves from the solution () INTO the cell () because the solution has higher (less negative) water potential.
Part (c): As water enters the cell, the cell swells and the cell wall exerts greater resistance. (turgor pressure) will increase (become more positive). This raises the cell’s overall until equilibrium is reached when .
2.4 Osmosis in Animal Cells
Animal cells have no cell wall, so they cannot develop turgor pressure. This makes them more sensitive to osmotic changes:
- Hypotonic solution (lower solute concentration than the cell): water enters → cell swells → may lyse (burst)
- Isotonic solution (same solute concentration as the cell): no net water movement → cell maintains normal volume
- Hypertonic solution (higher solute concentration than the cell): water leaves → cell crenates (shrinks and shrivels)
Comparison: osmosis in plant vs animal cells
| Plant cells | Animal cells | |
|---|---|---|
| Cell wall present? | Yes (cellulose) | No |
| In hypotonic solution | Becomes turgid (wall prevents lysis) | Swells and lyses |
| In isotonic solution | Slightly flaccid (no turgor) | Normal |
| In hypertonic solution | Plasmolysed (membrane pulls from wall) | Crenated |
Exam Alert: Students often confuse the direction of osmosis with solute movement. Osmosis is the movement of water (not solute) across a membrane. Water moves toward the region of lower (more negative) water potential — that is, toward the more concentrated solution. Never describe solutes “pulling” water; describe water moving down its own potential gradient.
2.5 Experimental Determination of Water Potential
The water potential of plant tissue can be estimated by measuring changes in mass or length when tissue samples are placed in solutions of known concentration.
Procedure:
- Cut uniform pieces of plant tissue (e.g. potato cylinders) and measure initial mass/length.
- Place each piece in a series of solutions of different sucrose concentrations.
- After a set time (e.g. 30 minutes), remove, blot dry, and measure final mass/length.
- Calculate percentage change in mass for each concentration.
- Plot % change in mass vs sucrose concentration.
- The point where the graph crosses 0% change is the concentration at which .
IB exam tip: When asked to describe this experiment, always state you measure percentage change in mass (not absolute change), because initial masses of tissue pieces may vary slightly. Percentage change standardises the data. This is a 1-mark distinction examiners look for.
Section 3: Reproduction and Development (D3.1, D3.2)
Reproduction ensures the continuity of genetic information across generations. Sexual reproduction introduces genetic variation through meiosis and random fertilisation; asexual reproduction produces genetically identical offspring rapidly.
3.1 Sexual vs Asexual Reproduction
| Feature | Sexual Reproduction | Asexual Reproduction |
|---|---|---|
| Gametes involved? | Yes — fusion of male and female gametes | No |
| Number of parents | Two (in most cases) | One |
| Genetic variation in offspring | High (meiosis + random fertilisation) | None (offspring are clones of parent) |
| Speed | Slower | Faster |
| Advantages | Variation aids adaptation to changing environments; variation reduces disease susceptibility | Energy-efficient; no need to find a mate; rapid population growth in stable environments |
| Disadvantages | Energetically costly; requires finding a mate | No variation — entire population vulnerable if environment changes or a pathogen evolves to target the genotype |
| Examples | Humans, flowering plants (via pollination) | Bacteria (binary fission), aphids (parthenogenesis), strawberries (runners/stolons) |
3.2 Gametogenesis
Gametogenesis is the production of gametes (sex cells) through a series of mitotic and meiotic divisions. The meiosis-genetics guide covers the mechanics of meiosis itself; this section focuses on the biology of gametogenesis in animals.
3.2.1 Spermatogenesis (male gamete production)
Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules of the testes:
- Spermatogonia (2n, stem cells in the germinal epithelium) divide by mitosis to maintain the stem cell population and produce primary spermatocytes.
- Primary spermatocytes (2n) undergo meiosis I → two secondary spermatocytes (n).
- Secondary spermatocytes (n) undergo meiosis II → four spermatids (n).
- Spermatids undergo spermiogenesis (differentiation without cell division) → mature spermatozoa.
Each primary spermatocyte ultimately yields four functional spermatozoa.
Structure of a spermatozoon:
- Head: contains the haploid nucleus and is covered by the acrosome (a vesicle containing hydrolytic enzymes that digest the zona pellucida of the egg during fertilisation)
- Midpiece: packed with mitochondria to supply ATP for flagellar movement
- Tail (flagellum): propels the sperm
3.2.2 Oogenesis (female gamete production)
Oogenesis occurs in the ovaries and is distinctive because it is largely complete before birth:
- Oogonia (2n) divide by mitosis and differentiate into primary oocytes during fetal development.
- Primary oocytes begin meiosis I but arrest in prophase I. At birth, the ovaries contain all the primary oocytes a female will ever have (~1–2 million).
- At puberty, each month one primary oocyte resumes meiosis I → secondary oocyte (n) + first polar body (discarded).
- The secondary oocyte then begins meiosis II but arrests in metaphase II. This is the cell that is ovulated.
- Meiosis II is completed only if the secondary oocyte is fertilised → mature ovum (n) + second polar body (discarded).
Key contrast: spermatogenesis vs oogenesis
| Feature | Spermatogenesis | Oogenesis |
|---|---|---|
| Location | Seminiferous tubules (testes) | Ovaries |
| Functional gametes per precursor | 4 spermatozoa | 1 ovum (+ polar bodies) |
| Cytoplasm distribution | Equal (all cells similar size) | Unequal (one cell retains most cytoplasm — the oocyte) |
| Timing | Continuous from puberty | Begins in fetal life; arrests in prophase I; completes only on fertilisation |
| Arrest point | No arrest | Prophase I (fetus); Metaphase II (adult secondary oocyte awaiting fertilisation) |
Exam Alert — Meiosis II arrest. A very common exam question asks at what stage of meiosis the secondary oocyte is ovulated and what triggers completion of meiosis. The answer: the secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase II and is ovulated in this state. Fertilisation by a sperm triggers completion of meiosis II and extrusion of the second polar body. Simply writing “the egg is released” without specifying the meiotic stage will lose marks.
3.3 Fertilisation and Early Embryonic Development
Fertilisation is the fusion of a haploid spermatozoon and a haploid secondary oocyte to form a diploid zygote.
Stages of fertilisation in humans:
- The sperm penetrates the corona radiata (surrounding granulosa cells) and contacts the zona pellucida (glycoprotein coat of the egg).
- The acrosome reaction occurs: the acrosome fuses with the sperm plasma membrane, releasing hydrolytic enzymes (acrosin, hyaluronidase) that digest the zona pellucida.
- The sperm plasma membrane fuses with the oocyte plasma membrane. The sperm nucleus enters the oocyte.
- Immediately, the cortical reaction occurs: cortical granules beneath the oocyte membrane fuse with it and release enzymes that harden the zona pellucida → zona reaction → polyspermy block (prevents more than one sperm fertilising the egg).
- Penetration of the sperm triggers completion of meiosis II in the secondary oocyte.
- The haploid nuclei of egg and sperm (pronuclei) fuse → syngamy → diploid zygote.
Early development:
| Stage | Events |
|---|---|
| Cleavage | Rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote; cells (blastomeres) get smaller; no growth between divisions |
| Morula | Solid ball of ~16 cells |
| Blastocyst | Hollow ball; inner cell mass (ICM, embryoblast) will form the embryo; trophoblast will form the placenta |
| Implantation | Blastocyst embeds into the endometrium (~6–10 days after fertilisation) |
| Gastrulation | ICM reorganises into three germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm |
IB exam tip: IB frequently asks about the significance of the cortical reaction and the acrosome reaction. Keep these distinct: the acrosome reaction allows sperm entry (enzymes digest zona pellucida); the cortical reaction prevents polyspermy (zona hardening after first sperm enters). Many students confuse the two.
3.4 In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) HL
IVF (in vitro fertilisation) is an assisted reproductive technology in which eggs are fertilised outside the body.
Key steps:
- Ovarian stimulation: The patient receives gonadotrophin injections (FSH and LH) to stimulate the development of multiple follicles simultaneously (superovulation).
- Egg retrieval: Mature oocytes are aspirated from follicles using an ultrasound-guided needle.
- Fertilisation: Sperm (from partner or donor) are incubated with the eggs in a culture dish. In ICSI (intracytoplasmic sperm injection), a single sperm is injected directly into an oocyte.
- Embryo culture: Fertilised eggs are cultured for 3–5 days (to blastocyst stage) in controlled conditions.
- Embryo transfer: One or two viable embryos are transferred to the uterus. Remaining embryos may be frozen for future use.
- Luteal support: Progesterone is given to support the endometrium for implantation.
Exam Alert — IVF ethical considerations. IB Paper 3 questions frequently ask you to evaluate the ethics of IVF. Include: creation and potential disposal of surplus embryos, risks of multiple pregnancies, age limits for treatment, access (cost), use of donor gametes, preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) and questions about “selecting” embryos. A balanced evaluation is always required.
Section 4: Gene Expression Regulation HL (D4.1, D4.2)
The DNA sequence (genotype) is not destiny — cells in the same organism share identical DNA yet have radically different structures and functions (a neuron vs a muscle cell vs a liver cell). This is because gene expression is tightly regulated. Epigenetics is the study of heritable changes in gene expression that do NOT involve changes to the DNA sequence itself.
4.1 Chromatin Structure and Gene Accessibility
DNA in eukaryotes is packaged around histone proteins to form chromatin. The fundamental unit of chromatin is the nucleosome: approximately 147 base pairs of DNA wound around an octamer of histone proteins (2 copies each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4).
- Euchromatin: loosely packed chromatin. Genes in euchromatin are accessible to transcription factors and RNA polymerase → transcriptionally active.
- Heterochromatin: tightly packed chromatin. Genes are inaccessible → silenced.
The packaging state of chromatin is regulated by covalent modifications to histone tails — the flexible N-terminal extensions of histone proteins that protrude from the nucleosome.
4.2 Histone Modification
Key histone modifications and their effects on gene expression:
| Modification | Enzyme(s) responsible | Effect on chromatin | Effect on transcription |
|---|---|---|---|
| Acetylation ( added to lysine) | Histone acetyltransferases (HATs) | Neutralises positive charge on histone; weakens DNA–histone interaction; loosens chromatin | Activates transcription (euchromatin) |
| Deacetylation (acetyl group removed) | Histone deacetylases (HDACs) | Restores positive charge; tightens DNA–histone interaction | Represses transcription (heterochromatin) |
| Methylation ( added to lysine or arginine) | Histone methyltransferases | Effect depends on which residue is methylated | Can activate OR repress (context-dependent) |
| Phosphorylation ( added to serine/threonine) | Kinases | Alters charge; affects higher-order folding | Varies; often associated with gene activation and chromosome condensation during mitosis |
Exam Alert: When writing about histone acetylation, the key mechanism is charge neutralisation. Histones are positively charged (lysine-rich). DNA is negatively charged. Acetylation removes the positive charge on lysine residues, weakening the electrostatic attraction between histone and DNA, allowing the chromatin to unwind and become accessible to transcription machinery. This molecular explanation distinguishes a 3-mark answer from a 1-mark answer.
4.3 DNA Methylation
DNA methylation is the addition of a methyl group () to a cytosine base, usually in the context of a CpG dinucleotide (cytosine followed by guanine in the 5’→3’ direction). The enzyme responsible is DNA methyltransferase (DNMT).
Effect on gene expression:
- Methylation of CpG sites in gene promoter regions generally silences gene expression.
- Heavily methylated promoters are associated with heterochromatin and reduced transcription factor binding.
- Conversely, hypomethylation of CpG islands (clusters of CpG sites) in promoters is associated with active transcription.
Inheritance of methylation patterns: DNA methylation patterns can be copied to the daughter strand after DNA replication by maintenance methyltransferases, which is why they are described as epigenetically heritable — the pattern is transmitted to daughter cells.
DNA methylation vs histone modification — comparison:
| Feature | DNA Methylation | Histone Modification |
|---|---|---|
| Target | Cytosine bases (CpG sites) | Histone tail residues (lysine, arginine, etc.) |
| Added group | Methyl () | Acetyl, methyl, phosphate, ubiquitin |
| Primary effect | Gene silencing (methylation of promoters) | Activation or repression (modification-dependent) |
| Heritability | Heritable — copied after replication | Can be heritable; less well characterised |
| Associated diseases | Cancers (aberrant methylation silences tumour suppressors) | Cancers, developmental disorders |
4.4 miRNA Regulation of Gene Expression
MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small (approximately 21–23 nucleotide) single-stranded RNA molecules that regulate gene expression post-transcriptionally — after the mRNA has been produced but before or during translation.
Mechanism:
- miRNA genes are transcribed from the genome to produce pre-miRNA (a hairpin-loop precursor).
- The pre-miRNA is processed in the nucleus and exported to the cytoplasm, where the enzyme Dicer cleaves it into a mature miRNA duplex.
- One strand of the duplex is incorporated into the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC).
- The miRNA within RISC base-pairs with the 3’ UTR (untranslated region) of its target mRNA.
- Perfect complementarity → mRNA is cleaved and degraded.
- Partial complementarity → translation is blocked (mRNA is not degraded but cannot be translated).
- Result: the protein encoded by the target mRNA is not produced (or produced at reduced levels).
Worked Example: miRNA silencing
A researcher identifies a miRNA that targets the mRNA of a growth-promoting protein. When the miRNA is overexpressed in cells, proliferation decreases.
(a) Explain how the miRNA reduces production of the growth-promoting protein. [3]
(b) Suggest what might happen to cell proliferation if the gene encoding this miRNA were mutated and non-functional. [2]
Part (a) [3 marks]:
- The mature miRNA is incorporated into the RISC complex.
- The miRNA is complementary to a sequence in the 3’ UTR of the growth-promoting protein’s mRNA.
- RISC binds the target mRNA, leading to either mRNA cleavage and degradation (if perfectly complementary) or blockage of ribosome activity / inhibition of translation (if partially complementary), preventing production of the growth-promoting protein.
Part (b) [2 marks]:
- If the miRNA is non-functional, the target mRNA would be translated at a higher rate (the post-transcriptional silencing mechanism would be lost).
- Increased production of the growth-promoting protein would stimulate cell proliferation, potentially contributing to uncontrolled cell growth/cancer.
4.5 Cell Differentiation and Epigenetic Reprogramming
All cells in a multicellular organism derive from a single zygote and have (with minor exceptions) the same genome. Cell differentiation is the process by which cells acquire specialised structures and functions through differential gene expression — different genes are expressed in different cell types.
How differentiation is established:
- During development, signalling molecules (morphogens, cell-surface signals, paracrine signals) activate transcription factors specific to each cell lineage.
- Once a cell fate is set, the epigenetic landscape (methylation patterns, histone modifications) is adjusted to stably silence genes not needed in that cell type and maintain expression of lineage-specific genes.
- This epigenetic state is inherited through subsequent cell divisions, creating stable cell lineages.
Epigenetic reprogramming can reverse differentiation:
- Induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs): Somatic cells can be reprogrammed back to a pluripotent state by introducing transcription factors (Oct4, Sox2, Klf4, c-Myc — the Yamanaka factors). This erases the cell-type-specific epigenetic marks and re-establishes a broadly permissive epigenome.
IB exam tip: A classic question asks why liver cells and muscle cells have different functions even though they have the same DNA. The correct answer at HL is: differential gene expression regulated by epigenetic modifications (histone acetylation/methylation and DNA methylation) and transcription factors determine which genes are actively transcribed in each cell type. “Different genes” is wrong — they have the same genes; they express different subsets.
Summary: Levels of gene expression regulation
| Level | Mechanism | Examples |
|---|---|---|
| Chromatin / Epigenetic | Histone modification; DNA methylation | Acetylation opens chromatin; methylation of CpG islands silences genes |
| Transcriptional | Transcription factors bind promoters/enhancers | Activators increase RNA polymerase binding; repressors block it |
| Post-transcriptional | RNA processing, miRNA silencing | Alternative splicing produces different mRNAs from the same gene; miRNA blocks translation or degrades mRNA |
| Translational | Ribosome availability, initiation factors | Phosphorylation of eIF2 halts translation under stress |
| Post-translational | Protein modification, degradation | Phosphorylation activates/deactivates proteins; ubiquitin marks proteins for proteasomal degradation |
Mixed Practice — Exam Style
10 MCQs covering all sections (IB Paper 1 style)
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[Mutations] A single nucleotide insertion in the middle of a coding sequence most likely results in:
A. A change in exactly one amino acid in the polypeptide
B. A frameshift affecting all codons downstream of the insertion
C. No change in the amino acid sequence because the code is degenerate
D. Premature termination at the insertion site
-
[Mutations] Non-disjunction in meiosis I produces gametes with:
A. The correct number of chromosomes
B. Either two copies of one chromosome or no copies, in all resulting gametes
C. One extra nucleotide in the DNA sequence
D. A chromosomal translocation
-
[CRISPR] In CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing, what is the role of the guide RNA?
A. It cleaves both strands of the target DNA
B. It transcribes the replacement gene into mRNA
C. It directs Cas9 to the correct DNA sequence by complementary base pairing
D. It repairs the double-strand break by homology-directed repair
-
[Water potential] A cell has and . Its water potential is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
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[Water potential] A plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution. Which sequence correctly describes the changes?
A. Water enters → cell swells → turgor pressure increases
B. Water leaves → turgor pressure decreases → possible plasmolysis
C. Solutes enter → cell shrinks → lysis
D. No net movement occurs because the cell wall prevents osmosis
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[Reproduction] The secondary oocyte is ovulated and remains arrested until:
A. The LH surge at ovulation
B. Penetration by a sperm triggers completion of meiosis II
C. The oocyte reaches the uterus
D. Progesterone levels fall after menstruation
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[Reproduction] In spermatogenesis, one primary spermatocyte produces:
A. One functional spermatozoon
B. Two spermatozoa and two polar bodies
C. Four functional spermatozoa
D. Two secondary spermatocytes that cannot divide further
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[Reproduction] HL During IVF, multiple eggs are collected because:
A. Each egg requires a different sperm donor
B. Ovarian stimulation forces the ovary to release all stored primary oocytes
C. FSH and LH injections cause superovulation, maturing multiple follicles simultaneously
D. Each egg takes several weeks to mature in culture
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[Gene expression] HL Histone acetylation promotes gene transcription primarily because:
A. Acetyl groups directly activate RNA polymerase
B. Acetylation reduces the positive charge on histones, weakening DNA–histone interactions and opening chromatin
C. Acetylation methylates CpG islands in the promoter
D. Acetyl groups bind to the TATA box and stabilise the transcription complex
-
[Gene expression] HL A miRNA with partial complementarity to a target mRNA will most likely:
A. Cleave the mRNA at the base-pairing site
B. Methylate the target gene’s promoter
C. Block translation by sterically hindering ribosome progression
D. Increase transcription of the target gene
Show Answers
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B — A single nucleotide insertion shifts the reading frame for every codon downstream, producing a completely different amino acid sequence from the insertion point onwards. Option A describes a missense substitution. Option C describes a silent substitution. Option D is possible eventually (a frameshift often introduces a premature stop codon), but the primary, immediate effect is the frameshift itself.
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B — Non-disjunction in meiosis I means both homologues move to the same pole. After two rounds of meiosis, two gametes will contain both homologues (n+1 = disomic) and two will contain neither (n-1 = nullisomic). This is distinct from meiosis II non-disjunction, which affects only two of the four resulting gametes.
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C — The guide RNA contains a sequence complementary to the target DNA. It is the “address label” that brings Cas9 to the right location. Cas9 (not the guide RNA) performs the cutting. HDR requires a supplied DNA template, not the guide RNA.
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C —
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B — A hypertonic solution has a lower (more negative) water potential than the cell. Water moves out of the cell down the water potential gradient. As water leaves, turgor pressure () decreases. If the solution is very hypertonic, water loss is sufficient to cause plasmolysis (the plasma membrane pulls away from the cell wall).
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B — The secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase II. Penetration by a sperm triggers a calcium ion wave that activates biochemical pathways completing meiosis II and expelling the second polar body. The LH surge triggers ovulation (completion of meiosis I), not meiosis II.
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C — Each primary spermatocyte (2n) undergoes meiosis I to give two secondary spermatocytes (n), each of which undergoes meiosis II to give two spermatids. All four spermatids differentiate into functional spermatozoa. This differs from oogenesis where only one functional gamete forms.
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C — Injecting FSH (and sometimes LH) stimulates multiple follicles to mature simultaneously (superovulation), yielding multiple oocytes per cycle for collection. This maximises the number of embryos available for transfer and freezing, improving overall IVF success rates.
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B — Histones are positively charged (rich in lysine and arginine). Acetylation of lysine residues neutralises the positive charge. This weakens the electrostatic attraction to the negatively charged DNA backbone, causing nucleosomes to loosen and chromatin to become euchromatic — accessible to transcription machinery.
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C — Partial complementarity (imperfect base pairing) between the miRNA and the 3’ UTR of the target mRNA results in translational repression: the RISC complex stalls or prevents ribosome movement. Perfect complementarity triggers mRNA cleavage and degradation (option A describes this). miRNAs act post-transcriptionally and do not directly methylate DNA.
May 2026 Prediction Questions
These are NOT official IB questions. These are trend-based practice questions reflecting topic areas and question styles most likely to appear on the May 2026 IB Biology HL Paper 2. Based on recent exam patterns (2022—2025), expect significant weighting on: CRISPR and its ethical evaluation, water potential calculations, the secondary oocyte arrest and fertilisation sequence, and HL epigenetic mechanisms. CRISPR has appeared in IB papers for the first time in recent sessions and the topic is increasingly prominent.
Question 1 [Mutations and Gene Editing] [~9 marks]
A research group is using CRISPR-Cas9 to correct a missense mutation in the gene HTT, which causes Huntington’s disease. The mutation is a single nucleotide substitution in exon 36 that introduces a premature stop codon, truncating the huntingtin protein.
(a) Distinguish between a missense mutation and a nonsense mutation. [2]
(b) Outline the mechanism by which CRISPR-Cas9 would be used to correct the mutation in somatic cells. Include the roles of the guide RNA and the Cas9 protein. [4]
(c) Evaluate the ethical considerations of using germline gene editing rather than somatic gene editing to treat Huntington’s disease. [3]
Show Solution
Part (a) [2 marks]:
- A missense mutation changes a codon so that it encodes a different amino acid, resulting in an altered polypeptide sequence.
- A nonsense mutation changes a codon to a stop codon, causing premature termination of translation and producing a truncated, usually non-functional polypeptide.
- (Note: the question stem contains a slight inconsistency — a mutation introducing a premature stop codon is technically a nonsense mutation. The distinction asked in part (a) is still valid and standard IB content.)
Part (b) [4 marks]:
- A guide RNA (gRNA) complementary to the mutated sequence in exon 36 of HTT is designed and synthesised.
- The gRNA forms a complex with the Cas9 endonuclease.
- The complex scans the genome, and the gRNA base-pairs with the complementary target sequence in HTT.
- Cas9 creates a double-strand break at the target site.
- A correct template DNA (containing the wild-type HTT sequence) is supplied alongside the CRISPR components. The cell’s homology-directed repair (HDR) machinery uses this template to repair the break with the correct sequence, restoring normal huntingtin protein production.
Part (c) [3 marks — balanced evaluation required]:
Arguments in favour of germline editing:
- Germline editing would correct the mutation in all cells of the offspring, including gametes, meaning the corrected sequence would be inherited by subsequent generations, potentially eliminating the disease from the family line.
- It could prevent disease in individuals who would otherwise carry the mutation.
Arguments against / ethical concerns:
- Germline changes are heritable and irreversible — any unintended off-target edits would be passed to all future descendants without their consent.
- Current technology has a non-zero rate of off-target mutations, which could introduce new diseases.
- Germline editing raises concerns about “designer babies” and eugenics — slippery slope arguments about selecting non-medical traits.
- Somatic gene therapy affects only the consenting patient; germline editing affects individuals who cannot give informed consent.
- Most countries ban germline editing in humans; international consensus on governance is lacking.
Balanced conclusion: Somatic gene therapy is the ethically preferred approach at present, given the risks of unintended heritable consequences; germline editing may be considered in future only when off-target rates approach zero and with robust international oversight.
Question 2 [Water Potential] [~7 marks]
A student places five identical potato cylinders in sucrose solutions of different concentrations. After 30 minutes, the percentage change in mass of each cylinder is measured. The results are shown below.
| Sucrose concentration () | % change in mass |
|---|---|
| 0.0 | +8.2 |
| 0.2 | +3.1 |
| 0.4 | 0.0 |
| 0.6 | -4.5 |
| 0.8 | -9.2 |
(a) Identify the water potential of the potato tissue. Explain your reasoning. [2]
(b) A cylinder in the solution gained mass. Explain, using the concept of water potential, why water entered the cylinder. [3]
(c) Explain why the student measured percentage change in mass rather than absolute change in mass. [1]
(d) Predict the state of the potato cells in the solution. [1]
Show Solution
Part (a) [2 marks]:
- The water potential of the potato tissue corresponds to the sucrose concentration at which no net change in mass occurs — i.e. .
- At this concentration, , so there is no net movement of water. The tissue water potential is equivalent to that of sucrose.
Part (b) [3 marks]:
- The solution has a lower solute concentration than the potato tissue (equivalent to ).
- A lower solute concentration means a higher (less negative) water potential in the solution compared to the potato tissue.
- Water moves by osmosis from the region of higher water potential (solution) to the region of lower water potential (potato tissue), causing the cylinder to gain mass.
Part (c) [1 mark]:
- Percentage change in mass is used because individual cylinders may have slightly different initial masses. Using a percentage standardises the data so cylinders can be compared fairly, regardless of initial mass variation.
Part (d) [1 mark]:
- The cells would be plasmolysed: water has left by osmosis (the solution is more concentrated, so has a lower water potential), causing the vacuole to shrink and the plasma membrane to pull away from the cell wall.
Question 3 [Reproduction and Gene Expression] [~8 marks]
(a) Describe the stages of oogenesis from oogonium to the point of ovulation, including the meiotic stage at which the oocyte is released. [4]
(b) HL Explain how histone acetylation and DNA methylation coordinate to control whether a gene involved in early embryonic development is expressed or silenced. [4]
Show Solution
Part (a) [4 marks]:
- Oogonia (diploid stem cells) divide by mitosis in the fetal ovary and differentiate into primary oocytes.
- Primary oocytes begin meiosis I but arrest in prophase I during fetal development. At birth, the ovaries contain the full complement of primary oocytes (~1–2 million).
- From puberty onwards, each menstrual cycle one primary oocyte is stimulated (by FSH/LH) to resume meiosis I.
- Meiosis I is completed: the primary oocyte divides unequally into a large secondary oocyte (retaining most cytoplasm) and a small first polar body (discarded).
- The secondary oocyte immediately begins meiosis II but arrests at metaphase II. It is in this arrested state that the secondary oocyte is ovulated (released from the follicle). Meiosis II is only completed if the oocyte is fertilised.
Part (b) [4 marks]:
- In a cell where the developmental gene must be silenced: DNA methyltransferase (DNMT) adds methyl groups () to cytosine residues in the CpG islands of the gene’s promoter. Methylated promoters recruit histone deacetylases (HDACs), which remove acetyl groups from histone lysine residues. The restored positive charge on histones strengthens DNA–histone electrostatic attraction, compacting the chromatin into heterochromatin. Transcription factors and RNA polymerase cannot access the promoter → gene is silenced.
- In a cell where the developmental gene must be expressed: the CpG islands remain unmethylated (hypomethylated). Histone acetyltransferases (HATs) add acetyl groups to lysine residues of nearby histones, neutralising their positive charge. This loosens DNA–histone interactions and opens chromatin into euchromatin. Transcription factors can now bind the promoter, RNA polymerase is recruited, and the gene is actively transcribed.
- The two mechanisms are mutually reinforcing: methylated DNA recruits HDACs (promoting deacetylation and repression); acetylated histones are associated with unmethylated, active promoters. Together they create robust, heritable on/off states for developmental gene expression.